...that, due to the economic slowdown from corona, about 1/3 of all investment wealth (I think in the US) has been lost.
This predominantly affects the wealthy, since they not just invest more in terms of absolute number of dollars, but tend to invest a larger proportion of their income or otherwise-liquid assets in businesses, the stock market, etc.
Is this considered an acceptable mode of wealth redistribution?
This predominantly affects the wealthy, since they not just invest more in terms of absolute number of dollars, but tend to invest a larger proportion of their income or otherwise-liquid assets in businesses, the stock market, etc.
Is this considered an acceptable mode of wealth redistribution?
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